DID SHAKESPEARE LOVE HIS WIFE? Stephen Greenblatt in WILL IN THE WORLD argues that Shakespeare did not. Greenblatt is bold and interesting throughout the book—bold because the hard information about Shakespeare’s life is scanty. Greenblatt generously gives information on both sides of the issue. One of Greenblatt’s arguments is that Shakespeare basically left his wife out of his will (leaving her the famous second-best bed). However, we will never know whether he did this because he did not like his wife. Greenblatt gives facts that permit a perfectly plausible alternative explanation. Shakespeare may have left most of his property to his older daughter’s husband because he thought the husband was the relative who was most competent to manage it. Greenblatt thinks Shakespeare’s wife may well have been illiterate. In addition, Shakespeare may have thought his wife was too close to his younger daughter, who had made an unfortunate marriage. Even today, it is not unheard of for money to be left to a responsible child who will take care of a less responsible sibling. This may not be what Shakespeare did, but we can never know.
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I think Shakespeare loved his wife. He was probably not faithful to her, in the technical sense, all those years he lived in London, but I think she was a center, a touchstone. I think he knew what she’d done for him, and what she’d given up. Also, I think Phil is right about “Merry Wives of Windsor” as a picture of domestic contentment. Of course, Shakespeare didn’t have to have had the experience in order to portray it. (“Oh, yes, my Uncle killed my Father and married my Mother. This has plot possibilities.”)
did he have a lover or not because then he wouldnt love his wife
but isnt it that in those days there were many lovers for one man, i didnt mean he was unfaithful, it just meant he was wealthier and could have the pleasure of many wives. they just needed to love them back! now days it would be considered wrong.